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View Diary: The Jewish Question questioned in the NYT (80 comments)

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  •  I always wanted to ask... (3+ / 0-)
    Recommended by:
    corvo, high5, Ray Blake

    When in this civilised world have we ever legally given a political entity, such as a 'state', the right to 'exist' over and above the citizens of the state, or the surrounding territory of the 'state'?

    In the HISTORY of this CIVILISED word, we have always sided with the indivudual's right over the right of a 'state', even the oppressed citizens within thier own state where the 'government' uses the state resources to oppress them.

    Was not one of the 'excuses' for invading Iraq to free the Iraqi people from thier leader using the resources of 'the state' to oppress them?  How about the 'excuse' used for Libya, or Indonesia, or VietNam, or the many...many other jusitifications for 'intervention' in the affairs of other states by western powers.

    Why is the reaction different in the case of the Palistinians?  Why are the western powers, mainly the Americans going so far as to deny the right of the Palistinians to have legal parity under the law, and to bring thier grievences against the Israeli state to a court?

    Why is the reaction so different for the stateless Palistinian people, than it is for...say Syria, or Iraq, or Libya, or Egypt, Indonesia, Viet Nam, Iran...and on and on and on.

    A flower that blooms in adversity is rare, and a symbol of hope for the oppressed.

    by Nur Alia Chang on Mon Mar 11, 2013 at 08:44:11 AM PDT

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