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View Diary: Phenomena of Language: The Great English Vowel Shift (141 comments)

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  •  I can explain why Aramaic sh is s (3+ / 0-)
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    SLKRR, Allogenes, mayim

    This is because there were three "s" sounds in Semitic languages, [s], [ʃ], and [ɬ]. In Arabic, [s] and [ʃ] were merged into [s], and [ɬ] changed to [ʃ]. This didn't happen in either Aramaic or Hebrew, which is why "sun" is shimsha and shemesh in those languages, respectively and why it's shams in Arabic.

    The borrowing could possibly have occurred before this change happened. OR it could be that Arabs were aware of the different sound correspondences between their language and Aramaic, and when they borrowed words, they transliterated them accordingly. I'd put my money on the latter hypothesis, as I think that the sound change happened fairly early on.

    So you think you can love me and leave me to die?

    by unspeakable on Sat Jan 31, 2009 at 03:31:53 PM PST

    [ Parent ]

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