U S Constitution
Bill of Rights
Amendment V
nor shall any person ... be deprived of life, liberty, or property, without due process of law
So how can so-called drug seizure laws (with confiscation of money and property without "due process") be legal?
I am reminded of reading Gulag Archipelago (I think that was it) and a discussion of how the Soviet constitution did not allow the treatment of its citizens that actually occured. No problem, the constitution was just ignored when it was inconvenient.
Are we doing the same?