The government revived efforts Monday to widen access to the morning-after pill, but only to women 18 and older
I'm glad we're still (hopefully) moving toward easier access to the morning after pill, but why on earth put in the age restriction? The stated reason, from the CNN story, is (emphasis added):
Barr must agree to sell nonprescription to women 18 and older, not 16 as the company had earlier sought. That's because it conforms with current age restrictions on tobacco products, and thus would simplify pharmacists' enforcement.
That makes no sense to me. (More below...)
First of all, why should we expect a 16 year-old to deal with the consequences of an unplanned pregnancy when an 18 year-old is allowed access to the medication? If there were some medical justification offered, that would be one thing, but the stated reason is to simplify enforcement for the pharmacists? I hardly think their convenience should trump the needs of younger customers, and I can't for the life of me figure out why it simplifies things for the pharmacists anyway.
Is it somehow easier for pharmacists to check that a customer is 18 rather than 16, "because it conforms with current age restrictions on tobacco products"? That seems crazy. Pharmacists don't even sell tobacco. The decision to link the age restriction on the morning after pill to the age restriction on tobacco seems totally absurd. Can anyone explain this to me?