Please correct me if I am wrong. But wasn't the citizenship clause of the 14th amendment put in there to overturn the Dred Scot Case?
The Dred Scot Supreme Court case declared that states were in charge of deciding slavery, not the federal government. It struck down Henry Clay's Missouri Compromise. I believe this was only the second time Judicial Review had been used by the court (the first being Marbury v. Madison). The decision went on to claim that African-Americans were so inferior that no one could expect them to be considered citizens of the United States. Thus enslave and freed African-Americans were denied citizenship and thus in this case the slave Dred Scot could not use the Federal Courts. It is clear that the Court viewed African-Americans not as citizens, nor even really as persons; but rather as property. Because slaves were property, Congress could not outlaw it as it would deprive people of their property rights without due process under the 5th amendment.
Here is the bigger point. If the 14th amendment citizenship clause overturned the Dred Scot Case, what happens if that clause is now removed as the Republicans desire. Does that then mean that the Dred Scot Decision is back in force and African Americans are no longer citizens?