So I've been engaged in a tax policy debate with some coworkers who I'm trying to "convert", and have been given
this site as an argument that, essentially, the rich pay an unfair amount of taxes. Among other things, it's claiming that the bottom 40% of families essentially pay no taxes. It sounds like utter wingnuttery to me -- I'm certainly in the bottom 40%, and certainly don't pay negative taxes! -- but I'm having a difficult time deconstructing the thing in a coherent way. I have a feeling the secret to getting the numbers to do what they want is that they include "Corporate Income [which is] distributed to families according to their share of capital income" as part of their measure of tax burden, but there's probably more to it than that.
Thanks!