First off, let me say that I have zero special knowledge of our legal system. I am no lawyer, just an average Joe. It would great if those with more info could jump in and clarify or correct as needed.
It is apparent to me that there is a massive flaw in our legal system that of course benefits those of more wealth and means. Watching all the coverage of Trump and his lifetime crime spree, I keep hearing that it is extremely hard to pin charges on him because we must prove that he INTENDED to commit a crime.
Then yesterday, I was watching the video on DeSatan’s latest stunt, where some folks are being arrested for voter fraud in Florida. Now, these are folks who believed that they were allowed to vote with the changes in their Constitution removing the lifetime disenfranchisement of those convicted of felonies. They were allowed to register by the state and they were allowed to vote by the state. But do we have to prove that they INTENDED to commit a crime to have them arrested and threatened with jail and fines? Apparently not.
Where the justice in that? Trump attempts a coup in broad daylight and we need to find a document or recording where he states that he fully intended to break 12 laws on Jan 6? Yet others who clearly had zero intention to break any laws are arrested anyway? Will it work for me: “I’m sorry officer, I was not intending to do 85 in a 50 mph hour zone!”
Can someone explain when this need to prove intent kicks in? Is it written into the statutes themselves? Does it cover only certain crimes like tax fraud and money laundering?