If Texas or any other state loses their Voter ID appeals does that mean that their congressional apportionment must be reduced as per 2 USC section 6?
Should any State deny or abridge the right of any of the male inhabitants thereof, being twenty-one years of age, and citizens of the United States, to vote at any election named in the amendment to the Constitution, article 14, section 2, except for participation in the rebellion or other crime, the number of Representatives apportioned to such State shall be reduced in the proportion which the number of such male citizens shall have to the whole number of male citizens twenty-one years of age in such State.
Presumably if Texas' voter ID can be shown to have disenfranchised male voters over the age of 21, then their apportionment must be reduced automatically under this law. If we accept the estimate of 600,000 disenfranchised voters and assume that about 50% are males over 21 years old, and that Texas has about 9,000,000 mail citizens over 21, then Texas' apportionment would need to be reduced by about 300,000/9,000,000 , or about 3.3%. That would mean that for the purpose of assigning congressional seats, texas would lose ~25million people tines 3.3% or 825,000 population. Since the average Congressional District is about 700,000 people, Texas would have to give up on seat in Congress.
I can't see anything wrong with this analysis, but I'm not a lawyer. Perhaps someone with a legal background could comment?
Assuming I've read the law correctly, how would this be enforced? Could any citizen sue to force the appropriate re-apportionment, or would it require some state official from whichever state would get the Congressional Seat Texas would be required to relinquish?
I haven't done the math for the other states that are preventing males over 21 from voting in this congressional election, but if their laws are also found unconstitutional, then I assume they would also be required to have reduced apportionments.